Model Paper for the Posts of SST and Educators Jobs Tests

Model Paper for the Posts of SST and Educators Jobs Tests (SOLVED)

1. Which of the following organisms does not contain chlorophyll?
(a) Ferns
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae

2. Which is the site of photosynthesis?
(a) Vacuoles
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(d) None of these

3. the most of the nitrogen move into the roots of plants in the form of:
(a) Ammonia
(b) Ammonium ions
(c) Nitrite
(d) Nitrate

4. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 100 pollen grains?
(a) 75
(b) 100
(c) 25
(d) 50

5. Osmosis is a function of
(a) The number of solute molecules in the solutions on the two sides of the selectively permeable membrane
(b) Pressure
(c) Temperature
(d) All of these

6. Ginger is a
(a) Tuber
(b) Rhizome
(c) Bulb
(d) None of these

7. Which of the followings are considered to be the simplest living organisms with ability to manufacture their own food by photosynthesis?
(a) Diatoms
(b) Bacteria
(c) Green plants
(d) Blue-green algae

8. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of
(a) Nucleus
(b) Cell wall
(c) Cell membrane
(d) None of these

9. The element which form amphoteric oxides is
(a) Antimony
(b) Bismuth
(c) Sodium
(d) Phosphorous

10. Which gas is used for converting vegetable oils into saturated fats?
(a) H2
(b) O2
(c) Cl2
(d) SO2

11. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution?
(a) Iodine
(b) Iodine Chloride
(c) Potassium Chloride
(d) Potassium nitrate

12. Rusting of iron requires?
(a) Oxygen only
(b) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

13. What the main particles of an atom are?
(a) Neutron, electron, and proton
(b) Photon and electron

14. Which particle of atom has no charge?
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electrons
(d) None of these

15. What is the name of industrial process of producing ammonia by the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst?
(a) Solvay Process
(b) Haber Process
(c) Bayer Process
(d) Bessemer Process

16. Stainless steel is an alloy of
(a) Iron, Carbon and Nickel
(b) Iron and Manganese

17. Why Glycol is added to aviation gasoline?
(a) Prevents freezing of petrol
(b) reduces consumption of petrol

18. Which of the following is the symbol for gold?
(a) Gd
(b) G
(c) Au
(d) Ag

19. Which of the following is used as laughing gas?
(a) Nitrogen trioxide
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Nitrogen tetra oxide

20. Contact lenses are made from
(a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Teflon
(c) polystyrene
(d) Lucite

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21. Which is the most reactive among the halogens?
(a) Bromine
(b) Chlorine
(c) Iodine
(d) Fluorine

22. The major component in the LPG is
(a) Butane
(b) Propane
(c) Methane
(d) Both a & b

23. The metal, which is a constituent of Vitamin B12, is
(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Zinc
(d) Magnesium

24. Chemical name of bleaching powder is:
(a) Calcium Chlorate
(b) Calcium Chloro hypochlorite

25. Which among the following elements (metals) pollutes the air of a city having large number of automobiles?
(a) Cadmium
(b) Chromium
(c) Lead
(d) Nickel

26. Which of the following fractions is the greatest of all?
(a) 7/8
(b) 6/7
(c) 5/6
(d) 4/5

27. A car wash can wash 8 cars in 18 minutes. At this rate, how many cars can the car wash in 3 hours?
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 75
(d) 80

28. The cost price of 20 articles is equal to the sale price of 16 articles. What is the percentage gain?
(a) 20%
(b) 16%
(c) 25%
(d) 18%

29. If 4563 = 5437 and 6647 = 3353, then 546 is
(a) 453
(b) 454
(c) 8445
(d) 9454

30. The sum of all prime numbers between 50 and 115 when divided by 5 is:
(a) 109
(b) 151
(c) 253
(d) 206

31. Of the three numbers second is twice the first and also thrice the third. If the average of three numbers is 44, find the largest number.
(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 26
(d) 34

32. Multiply: 0.002 x 4.31
(a) 0.00862
(b) 0.862(c) 0.0862
(d) 0.00762

33. If total marks for an examination are 850 and a candidate gets 80% marks. How many marks does he obtain?
(a) 650
(b) 680
(c) 660
(d) 670

34. The written price of a coat is Rs.275 If 15% rebate is given on the written price, what will a customer pay?
(a) Rs. 223.75
(b) Rs. 231.75
(c) Rs. 243.75
(d) Rs. 233.75

35. In the numerals 0 to 99 which is the least repeated digit?
(a) 9
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 7

36. Which of the following is the smallest fraction?
(a) 3/7
(b) 5/1
(c) 6/13
(d) 7/12

37. A man bought a toy for Rs. 112 and sold it for Rs. 164 what fraction of the selling price was his profit.
(a) 26/64
(b) 13/28
(c) 13/35
(d) 13/4

38. When 8% of 630 is added to 12% of 315, what would be the sum?
(a) 68.2
(b) 44.1
(c) 126
(d) 88.2

39. 45% of 600 is equal to:
(a) 300
(b) 270
(c) 350
(d) 250

40. What is 1/5% of 6000?
(a) 120
(b) 12
(c) 1200
(d) 500

41. Pilot School invited same number of boys and girls at its annual party. All came but 15 extra girls showed up. As a result ratio of boys to girls is 4:5. How many people did Pilot School invite at is party.
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 40
(d) 150

42. What will be 60% of a number whose 80% is 320?
(a) 240
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 600

43. If 213  16 = 3408, then 1.6  21.3 is equal to:
(a) 0.3408
(b) 3.408
(c) 34.08
(d) 340.8

44. If 3 5 +125= 17.88, then what will be the value of80+ 6 5?
(a) 10.25
(b) 15.28
(c) 18.30
(d) 22.35

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45. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenth of that number is:
(a) 22
(b) 39
(c) 47
(d) 54

46.
(a)
(b) (c) (d)

47. The reflexive property of equality of real numbers is that
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

48. The left distributive property of real numbers is that
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

49. If is a function, then
(a)
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

50.
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d)

51. What are the merits of microteaching?
(a) Feedback helps in the improvement of method of teaching
(b) Due to shortage of time you divide the lesson plan into small units and thus gain mastery over the content
(c) It helps in self evaluation and teacher build up confidence in them
(d) All of the above

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52. Method is based on the facts that students learn association, activity and cooperation is known as
(a) Demonstration
(b) Project
(c) Problem- solving
(d) discussion

53. Exhibition of Science fairs promote students ability of
(a) Knowledge order skills
(b) Comprehension and application

54. To propose the learning theory Kohler experimented on-
(a) a monkey called Albert
(b) a chimpanzee called Albert

55. Which of the following does not come under regular education?
(a) School
(b) Library
(c) Teaching methods
(d) Religion

56. Branch of Science in which species of organisms are identified, classified and categorized is known as-
(a) Taxonomy
(b) Ecology
(c) Genetics
(d) Biology

57. The disease caused by deficiency of protein is known as-
(a) Malaria
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Kwashiorkor

58. Curriculum reflects the culture of?
(a) Society
(b) Home
(c) School
(d) Area

59. Detailed contents of the subjects for a class are called?
(a) Course
(b) Behavior
(c) Design
(d) Logic

60. Why should textbooks be changed after some time?
(a) Because students get bored while reading the same text-books.

(b) The change of textbooks is necessary with the increase of knowledge.

(d) It is necessary to keep the teachers studious throughout their life.

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Directions—(Q. 61–63) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold.

61. Annihilate:
(a) efface
(b) cultivate
(c) perpetuate
(d) reason

62. Dormant:
(a) active
(b) vigilant
(c) warbling
(d) inert

63. Fraternize:
(a) abjure
(b) awful
(c) associate
(d) horrid

Directions—(Q. 64–66) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold.

64. Fatigue:
(a) vitality
(b) weariness
(c) solemn
(d) enchant

65. Gossip:
(a) taciturnity
(b) rumour
(c) odious
(d) shrink

66. Smear:
(a) plaster
(b) daub
(c) mediate
(d) polish

Directions (Q. 67 to 69): In this part Direct sentence is given. Please find out its correct indirect sentence out of the four choices a, b, c, and d.

67. He said, “Do not go too far”.
(a) He advised her not to went too far.
(b) He advise her not to go too far.

(c) He advised her that not to go too far.
(d) He advised her not to go too far.

68. She said to him, “Be patient”
(a) She told him to be patient.
(b) She said him to be patient.

69. He asked us, “Have you been shopping?”
(a) He wanted to know if we have been shopping.
(b) He wanted to know that if we had been shopping.

70. The model paraded in front of the celebrities with ____ ; it was impossible to tell that this was her first assignment.
(a) panache
(b) opprobrium
(c) shame
(d) trepidation

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71. The term lead pencil is a ____ ; pencils are filled with graphite not lead.
(a) misnomer
(b) misdemeanor
(c) peccadillo
(d) euphemism

72. Your views are identical ______ mine.
(a) to
(b) for
(c) from
(d) in

73. He is envious ______ his brother’s success.
(a) of
(b) from
(c) to
(d) for

74. mason : stone :: _______ : ________
(a) teacher : chalk
(b) carpenter : wood
(c) soldier : gun
(d) photograph : camera

75. orchestra : musician :: _______ : _______
(a) story : comedian
(b) band : singer
(c) troupe : actor
(d) garden : leaf

76. snake : invertebrate :: _____ : ______
(a) dolphin : fish
(b) eagle : talon

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a screwdriver to take them off.
Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of the sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it broke in pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his bed, leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments. Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.

77. Dantes was in
(a) a hostel
(b) a dining room
(c) an army barracks
(d) a prison

78. Dantes heard the key grate in the lock when the
(a) cell door was shut
(b) cell door was opened

79. The guard left the fragments because he
(a) didn’t notice them
(b) wished to punish Dantes

80. Dantes probably broke the jug
(a) in the morning
(b) during the night
(c) after breakfast
(d) at exactly 3pm

81. Where Quaid-e-Azam stayed during his last illness in 1948?
(a) Hanna Lake
(b) Kohlu
(c) Ziarat
(d) Makran

82. Who was the first Governor of State Bank of Pakistan?
(a) Ishrat Kamal
(b) Saeed Hamid
(c) Zahid Hussain
(d) Rashid Naqvi

83. On which River Baghliar Dam is being constructed by Indian Government?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Sutlej
(c) Chenab
(d) Indus

84. When Pakistan applied for membership of UNO, which country opposed the membership of Pakistan in UNO?
(a) India
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Israel
(d) Russia

85. Hindi Urdu Controversy (started from Banaras in1867) was the main cause of Two Nations Theory. Who was the governor of Banaras at the time of Hindi Urdu Controversy?
(a) Lord Mayo
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Shakespeare

86. Where is KallarKahar Lake situated?
(a) Sialkot
(b) Chakwal
(c) Sargodha
(d) Jehlum

87. Muslims celebrated the “Day of Deliverance on
(a) 22nd December 1939
(b) 25th December 1939

88. Chitral incorporated into Pakistan on?
(a) 28 July 1967
(b) 28 July 1968
(c) 28 July 1969
(d) 28 July 1970

89. Hina Lake is situated near
(a) Peshawar
(b) Quetta
(c) Murree
(d) Kaghan

90. Haleji Lake is situated in
(a) Punjab
(b) Sindh
(c) K.P
(d) Balochistan

91. Where famous archaeological site MehrGarh is located?
(a) Balochistan
(b) Sindh
(c) KPK
(d) Punjab

92. Where famous archaeological site Takht Bhai is located?
(a) Balochistan
(b) Sindh
(c) KPK
(d) Punjab

93. Which city is called the “export city” of Pakistan?
(a) Karachi
(b) Faisalabad
(c) Sialkot
(d) Rawalpindi

94. Mahabat Khan Mosque is in:
(a) Mardan
(b) kohat
(c) Sawabi
(d) Peshawar

95. Pakistan Forest institution is located in:
(a) Karachi
(b) Rawalpindi
(c) Lahore
(d) Peshawar

96. Which is the hottest place in Pakistan?
(a) Sibi
(b) Kashmor
(c) Turbat
(d) Mianwali

97. Which was the smallest Tribal Agency of FATA in term of area before becoming part of KPK?
(a) Khyber
(b) Bajaur
(c) South Waziristan
(d) Mohmand

98. Which was the largest Tribal Agency of FATA in term of area before becoming part of KPK?
(a) Khyber
(b) Bajaur
(c) South Waziristan
(d) Mohmand

99. Which is the highest peak of Pakistan?
(a) Pamir
(b) Nanga Parbat
(c) K-2
(d) Rakaposhi

100. Which of these rivers is a major river of KPK?
(a) Chenab
(b) Ravi
(c) Kabul
(d) Indus

Answers

1. c	2. c	3. d	4. c	5. d	6. b	7. d	8. b	9. a	10. a
11. a	12. c	13. a	14. b	15. b	16. d	17. a	18. c	19. c	20. a
21. d	22. d	23. a	24. b	25. c	26. c	27. d	28. c	29. d	30. c
31. a	32. a	33. b	34. d	35. c	36. a	37. b	38. d	39. b	40. b
41. b	42. a	43. c	44. d	45. d	46. a	47. a	48. d	49. a	50. d
51. d	52. b	53. b	54. c	55. d	56. a	57. d	58. a	59. a	60. b
61. a	62. d	63. c	64. a	65. a	66. d	67. d	68. a	69. d	70. a
71. a	72. c	73. a	74. b	75. c	76. d	77. d	78. d	79. c	80. b
81. c	82. c	83. c	84. b	85. d	86. b	87. a	88. c	89. b	90. b
91. a	92. c	93. c	94. d	95. d	96. c	97. b	98. c	99. c	100. c