Model Paper for the Posts of SST and Educators Jobs Tests (SOLVED)
1. Which of the following organisms does not contain chlorophyll?
(a) Ferns
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae
2. Which is the site of photosynthesis?
(a) Vacuoles
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(d) None of these
3. the most of the nitrogen move into the roots of plants in the form of:
(a) Ammonia
(b) Ammonium ions
(c) Nitrite
(d) Nitrate
4. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 100 pollen grains?
(a) 75
(b) 100
(c) 25
(d) 50
5. Osmosis is a function of
(a) The number of solute molecules in the solutions on the two sides of the selectively permeable membrane
(b) Pressure
(c) Temperature
(d) All of these
6. Ginger is a
(a) Tuber
(b) Rhizome
(c) Bulb
(d) None of these
7. Which of the followings are considered to be the simplest living organisms with ability to manufacture their own food by photosynthesis?
(a) Diatoms
(b) Bacteria
(c) Green plants
(d) Blue-green algae
8. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of
(a) Nucleus
(b) Cell wall
(c) Cell membrane
(d) None of these
9. The element which form amphoteric oxides is
(a) Antimony
(b) Bismuth
(c) Sodium
(d) Phosphorous
10. Which gas is used for converting vegetable oils into saturated fats?
(a) H2
(b) O2
(c) Cl2
(d) SO2
11. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution?
(a) Iodine
(b) Iodine Chloride
(c) Potassium Chloride
(d) Potassium nitrate
12. Rusting of iron requires?
(a) Oxygen only
(b) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(c) Oxygen and water
(d) Carbon dioxide only
13. What the main particles of an atom are?
(a) Neutron, electron, and proton
(b) Photon and electron
(c) Photon, electron, and neutron
(d) Proton and electron
14. Which particle of atom has no charge?
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electrons
(d) None of these
15. What is the name of industrial process of producing ammonia by the reaction of nitrogen with hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst?
(a) Solvay Process
(b) Haber Process
(c) Bayer Process
(d) Bessemer Process
16. Stainless steel is an alloy of
(a) Iron, Carbon and Nickel
(b) Iron and Manganese
(c) Iron, Chromium and Zinc
(d) Iron, Chromium and Nickel
17. Why Glycol is added to aviation gasoline?
(a) Prevents freezing of petrol
(b) reduces consumption of petrol
(c) Reduces evaporation of petrol
(d) increase efficiency of petrol
18. Which of the following is the symbol for gold?
(a) Gd
(b) G
(c) Au
(d) Ag
19. Which of the following is used as laughing gas?
(a) Nitrogen trioxide
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Nitrogen tetra oxide
20. Contact lenses are made from
(a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Teflon
(c) polystyrene
(d) Lucite
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21. Which is the most reactive among the halogens?
(a) Bromine
(b) Chlorine
(c) Iodine
(d) Fluorine
22. The major component in the LPG is
(a) Butane
(b) Propane
(c) Methane
(d) Both a & b
23. The metal, which is a constituent of Vitamin B12, is
(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Zinc
(d) Magnesium
24. Chemical name of bleaching powder is:
(a) Calcium Chlorate
(b) Calcium Chloro hypochlorite
(c) Calcium hypochlorite
(d) Calcium bi Chloride
25. Which among the following elements (metals) pollutes the air of a city having large number of automobiles?
(a) Cadmium
(b) Chromium
(c) Lead
(d) Nickel
26. Which of the following fractions is the greatest of all?
(a) 7/8
(b) 6/7
(c) 5/6
(d) 4/5
27. A car wash can wash 8 cars in 18 minutes. At this rate, how many cars can the car wash in 3 hours?
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 75
(d) 80
28. The cost price of 20 articles is equal to the sale price of 16 articles. What is the percentage gain?
(a) 20%
(b) 16%
(c) 25%
(d) 18%
29. If 4563 = 5437 and 6647 = 3353, then 546 is
(a) 453
(b) 454
(c) 8445
(d) 9454
30. The sum of all prime numbers between 50 and 115 when divided by 5 is:
(a) 109
(b) 151
(c) 253
(d) 206
31. Of the three numbers second is twice the first and also thrice the third. If the average of three numbers is 44, find the largest number.
(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 26
(d) 34
32. Multiply: 0.002 x 4.31
(a) 0.00862
(b) 0.862(c) 0.0862
(d) 0.00762
33. If total marks for an examination are 850 and a candidate gets 80% marks. How many marks does he obtain?
(a) 650
(b) 680
(c) 660
(d) 670
34. The written price of a coat is Rs.275 If 15% rebate is given on the written price, what will a customer pay?
(a) Rs. 223.75
(b) Rs. 231.75
(c) Rs. 243.75
(d) Rs. 233.75
35. In the numerals 0 to 99 which is the least repeated digit?
(a) 9
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 7
36. Which of the following is the smallest fraction?
(a) 3/7
(b) 5/1
(c) 6/13
(d) 7/12
37. A man bought a toy for Rs. 112 and sold it for Rs. 164 what fraction of the selling price was his profit.
(a) 26/64
(b) 13/28
(c) 13/35
(d) 13/4
38. When 8% of 630 is added to 12% of 315, what would be the sum?
(a) 68.2
(b) 44.1
(c) 126
(d) 88.2
39. 45% of 600 is equal to:
(a) 300
(b) 270
(c) 350
(d) 250
40. What is 1/5% of 6000?
(a) 120
(b) 12
(c) 1200
(d) 500
41. Pilot School invited same number of boys and girls at its annual party. All came but 15 extra girls showed up. As a result ratio of boys to girls is 4:5. How many people did Pilot School invite at is party.
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 40
(d) 150
42. What will be 60% of a number whose 80% is 320?
(a) 240
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 600
43. If 213 16 = 3408, then 1.6 21.3 is equal to:
(a) 0.3408
(b) 3.408
(c) 34.08
(d) 340.8
44. If 3 5 +125= 17.88, then what will be the value of80+ 6 5?
(a) 10.25
(b) 15.28
(c) 18.30
(d) 22.35
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45. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenth of that number is:
(a) 22
(b) 39
(c) 47
(d) 54
46.
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
47. The reflexive property of equality of real numbers is that
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
48. The left distributive property of real numbers is that
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
49. If is a function, then
(a)
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
50.
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
(d)
51. What are the merits of microteaching?
(a) Feedback helps in the improvement of method of teaching
(b) Due to shortage of time you divide the lesson plan into small units and thus gain mastery over the content
(c) It helps in self evaluation and teacher build up confidence in them
(d) All of the above
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52. Method is based on the facts that students learn association, activity and cooperation is known as
(a) Demonstration
(b) Project
(c) Problem- solving
(d) discussion
53. Exhibition of Science fairs promote students ability of
(a) Knowledge order skills
(b) Comprehension and application
(c) Higher order skills
(d) Homer order skills
54. To propose the learning theory Kohler experimented on-
(a) a monkey called Albert
(b) a chimpanzee called Albert
(c) a monkey called Sultan
(d) a chimpanzee called Sultan
55. Which of the following does not come under regular education?
(a) School
(b) Library
(c) Teaching methods
(d) Religion
56. Branch of Science in which species of organisms are identified, classified and categorized is known as-
(a) Taxonomy
(b) Ecology
(c) Genetics
(d) Biology
57. The disease caused by deficiency of protein is known as-
(a) Malaria
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Kwashiorkor
58. Curriculum reflects the culture of?
(a) Society
(b) Home
(c) School
(d) Area
59. Detailed contents of the subjects for a class are called?
(a) Course
(b) Behavior
(c) Design
(d) Logic
60. Why should textbooks be changed after some time?
(a) Because students get bored while reading the same text-books.
(b) The change of textbooks is necessary with the increase of knowledge.
(c) It is necessary to ensure financial security of the publishers.
(d) It is necessary to keep the teachers studious throughout their life.
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Directions—(Q. 61–63) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold.
61. Annihilate:
(a) efface
(b) cultivate
(c) perpetuate
(d) reason
62. Dormant:
(a) active
(b) vigilant
(c) warbling
(d) inert
63. Fraternize:
(a) abjure
(b) awful
(c) associate
(d) horrid
Directions—(Q. 64–66) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold.
64. Fatigue:
(a) vitality
(b) weariness
(c) solemn
(d) enchant
65. Gossip:
(a) taciturnity
(b) rumour
(c) odious
(d) shrink
66. Smear:
(a) plaster
(b) daub
(c) mediate
(d) polish
Directions (Q. 67 to 69): In this part Direct sentence is given. Please find out its correct indirect sentence out of the four choices a, b, c, and d.
67. He said, “Do not go too far”.
(a) He advised her not to went too far.
(b) He advise her not to go too far.
(c) He advised her that not to go too far.
(d) He advised her not to go too far.
68. She said to him, “Be patient”
(a) She told him to be patient.
(b) She said him to be patient.
(c) She told her to be patient.
(d) She told him be patient.
69. He asked us, “Have you been shopping?”
(a) He wanted to know if we have been shopping.
(b) He wanted to know that if we had been shopping.
(c) He want to know if we had been shopping.
(d) He wanted to know if we had been shopping.
70. The model paraded in front of the celebrities with ____ ; it was impossible to tell that this was her first assignment.
(a) panache
(b) opprobrium
(c) shame
(d) trepidation
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71. The term lead pencil is a ____ ; pencils are filled with graphite not lead.
(a) misnomer
(b) misdemeanor
(c) peccadillo
(d) euphemism
72. Your views are identical ______ mine.
(a) to
(b) for
(c) from
(d) in
73. He is envious ______ his brother’s success.
(a) of
(b) from
(c) to
(d) for
74. mason : stone :: _______ : ________
(a) teacher : chalk
(b) carpenter : wood
(c) soldier : gun
(d) photograph : camera
75. orchestra : musician :: _______ : _______
(a) story : comedian
(b) band : singer
(c) troupe : actor
(d) garden : leaf
76. snake : invertebrate :: _____ : ______
(a) dolphin : fish
(b) eagle : talon
(c) boa constrictor : backbone
(d) penguin : bird
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
He saw nothing, he had no knife or sharp instrument, the grating of the window was of iron and he had too often assured himself of its solidity. His furniture consisted of a bed, a chair, a table, a pail, and a jug. The bed had iron clamps, but they were screwed to the wall and it would have required a screwdriver to take them off.
Dantes had but one resource which was to break the jug and with one of the sharp fragments attack the wall. He left the jug fall on the floor and it broke in pieces. He concealed two or three of the sharpest fragments in his bed, leaving the rest on the floor. The breaking of the jug was too natural an accident to excite suspicion, and next morning gaoler went grumblingly to fetch another, without giving himself the trouble to remove the fragments. Dantes heard joyfully the key grate in the lock as guard departed.
77. Dantes was in
(a) a hostel
(b) a dining room
(c) an army barracks
(d) a prison
78. Dantes heard the key grate in the lock when the
(a) cell door was shut
(b) cell door was opened
(c) storeroom was opened
(d) storeroom was shut
79. The guard left the fragments because he
(a) didn’t notice them
(b) wished to punish Dantes
(c) was too lazy to bother
(d) wanted Dantes to clear up
80. Dantes probably broke the jug
(a) in the morning
(b) during the night
(c) after breakfast
(d) at exactly 3pm
81. Where Quaid-e-Azam stayed during his last illness in 1948?
(a) Hanna Lake
(b) Kohlu
(c) Ziarat
(d) Makran
82. Who was the first Governor of State Bank of Pakistan?
(a) Ishrat Kamal
(b) Saeed Hamid
(c) Zahid Hussain
(d) Rashid Naqvi
83. On which River Baghliar Dam is being constructed by Indian Government?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Sutlej
(c) Chenab
(d) Indus
84. When Pakistan applied for membership of UNO, which country opposed the membership of Pakistan in UNO?
(a) India
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Israel
(d) Russia
85. Hindi Urdu Controversy (started from Banaras in1867) was the main cause of Two Nations Theory. Who was the governor of Banaras at the time of Hindi Urdu Controversy?
(a) Lord Mayo
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Shakespeare
86. Where is KallarKahar Lake situated?
(a) Sialkot
(b) Chakwal
(c) Sargodha
(d) Jehlum
87. Muslims celebrated the “Day of Deliverance on
(a) 22nd December 1939
(b) 25th December 1939
(c) 24th December 1939
(d) 23rd December 1939
88. Chitral incorporated into Pakistan on?
(a) 28 July 1967
(b) 28 July 1968
(c) 28 July 1969
(d) 28 July 1970
89. Hina Lake is situated near
(a) Peshawar
(b) Quetta
(c) Murree
(d) Kaghan
90. Haleji Lake is situated in
(a) Punjab
(b) Sindh
(c) K.P
(d) Balochistan
91. Where famous archaeological site MehrGarh is located?
(a) Balochistan
(b) Sindh
(c) KPK
(d) Punjab
92. Where famous archaeological site Takht Bhai is located?
(a) Balochistan
(b) Sindh
(c) KPK
(d) Punjab
93. Which city is called the “export city” of Pakistan?
(a) Karachi
(b) Faisalabad
(c) Sialkot
(d) Rawalpindi
94. Mahabat Khan Mosque is in:
(a) Mardan
(b) kohat
(c) Sawabi
(d) Peshawar
95. Pakistan Forest institution is located in:
(a) Karachi
(b) Rawalpindi
(c) Lahore
(d) Peshawar
96. Which is the hottest place in Pakistan?
(a) Sibi
(b) Kashmor
(c) Turbat
(d) Mianwali
97. Which was the smallest Tribal Agency of FATA in term of area before becoming part of KPK?
(a) Khyber
(b) Bajaur
(c) South Waziristan
(d) Mohmand
98. Which was the largest Tribal Agency of FATA in term of area before becoming part of KPK?
(a) Khyber
(b) Bajaur
(c) South Waziristan
(d) Mohmand
99. Which is the highest peak of Pakistan?
(a) Pamir
(b) Nanga Parbat
(c) K-2
(d) Rakaposhi
100. Which of these rivers is a major river of KPK?
(a) Chenab
(b) Ravi
(c) Kabul
(d) Indus
Answers
1. c | 2. c | 3. d | 4. c | 5. d | 6. b | 7. d | 8. b | 9. a | 10. a |
11. a | 12. c | 13. a | 14. b | 15. b | 16. d | 17. a | 18. c | 19. c | 20. a |
21. d | 22. d | 23. a | 24. b | 25. c | 26. c | 27. d | 28. c | 29. d | 30. c |
31. a | 32. a | 33. b | 34. d | 35. c | 36. a | 37. b | 38. d | 39. b | 40. b |
41. b | 42. a | 43. c | 44. d | 45. d | 46. a | 47. a | 48. d | 49. a | 50. d |
51. d | 52. b | 53. b | 54. c | 55. d | 56. a | 57. d | 58. a | 59. a | 60. b |
61. a | 62. d | 63. c | 64. a | 65. a | 66. d | 67. d | 68. a | 69. d | 70. a |
71. a | 72. c | 73. a | 74. b | 75. c | 76. d | 77. d | 78. d | 79. c | 80. b |
81. c | 82. c | 83. c | 84. b | 85. d | 86. b | 87. a | 88. c | 89. b | 90. b |
91. a | 92. c | 93. c | 94. d | 95. d | 96. c | 97. b | 98. c | 99. c | 100. c |